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« SBL Happenings...and How to Hone Your Boston Accent | Main | My trip to Nepal and India (Monday with Mounce 13) by Bill Mounce »


Excellent post. There is perhaps a second interpretive consideration in some of these same verses, and that would be identifying the referent of zarakha, "your seed." Paul, in certain contexts of Galatians, no doubt has Jesus firmly and singly in mind. One might wonder, then, in covenant contexts where the Hithpael of barakh is used, and if we correctly understand the nuance of that stem there to be that the nations will seek to curry favor with the object of the preposition (be), if perhaps the seed there refers to Jesus the Messiah. I'm not saying that it does; I'm only throwing it out for speculation.

Till now, I've generally tended to interpret the hithpaels in these verses in light of the niphals. I have allowed the niphals to influence my understanding and hence translation of the hithpaels. I've read them all as passives. But I think your statement that this tendency subjects the biblical author to the charge of being random and haphazard with his use of the different stems bears merit.

I've read some pretty good journal articles on this very topic lately. Again, thank you Dr. Walton for another excellent post! You are really challenging and helping us aspiring (accurate) interpreters of God's word.

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