Enter your email address:

Delivered by FeedBurner

Bookmark and Share

« Hello and welcome! | Main | Report on the Society of New Testament Studies Meeting In Lund, Sweden and the Gospel of Judas by Darrell L. Bock »


Thanks very much for that. It's very nice to remember that a simple genitive case is not always so simple. Now, can you please prepare another post to explain why every translator feels the "obedience of faith" is supposedly that of Paul's converts instead of Paul himself?

To me, the Greek sentence construction looks much more strongly as if Paul is saying the grace and apostleship he received sent him, himself, INTO the obedience of faith IN the nations. In other words, it was Paul's faithful obedience to God's gift of apostleship that made him go among the gentile world in the first place.

Furthermore, I do not see any context in the first chapter that suggests Paul's thoughts about his audience are anywhere near the topic of gentile converts displaying obedience. In fact, it is generally the character of all Paul's letters to emphasize faith and spiritual realities first, building towards behavioral exhortations by the close.

Beyond that, I find it completely outside Paul's theology to suggest that the purpose of his calling was to produce obedience. Oh, we might extrapolate to say that was his purpose in some sense, or in effect. But I don't recall elsewhere seeing Paul say so, in such terms. Indeed far from it, if memory serves.

Again, can you please tell me if there is any grammatical justification for the decision made by all major translators to attach the "obedience" as the property of the "nations"?

Is it normal to make the object of one prep.phrase the subordinate property of a different object of the next prep.phrase?

I would really appreciate any further help here. Thanks.

Great start to the week, thanks! Also like the follow-up; suggests that this will be an interesting site.

Thanks Dr. Mounce for tackling a difficult Greek construction the first day in the office.

What exactly does the ESV's rendering mean? Your point about how Paul understands his calling comes through clearer in the TNIV's "to call all the Gentiles to faith and obedience."

Thank you for tackling the versatile and often confusing genitive and for highlighting the importance of context.

I am glad to see you said "The purpose of Paul’s ministry is to be the herald, to announce how people can live in relationship with the King."

Recently I was reading Rom 1 and the introduction to the Psalter and I was struck by the echos of Psalm 2 in Rimans 1:4, 5.

In Romans 1:4 Paul makes reference to Jesus and his having been crowned king by means of his resurrection and so we can draw a straight line from Romans 1:4 through Acts 13:33 to Psalm 2:7.

Notice the link between Psalm 2:8 and Romans 1:5, in the former we read “ask of me, and I will make the nations your heritage, and the ends of the earth your possession” and in the latter Paul states that his role was “to bring about the obedience of faith…among all the nations”. So Paul sees his responsibility, his commission, to be the bringing about the fulfillment of Psalm 2:8, that is bringing the nations (read Gentiles) under the rule of Jesus as King.

Doug Mounce asked about the ESV's rendering. Actually, the ESV's policy was to leave ambiguous statements ambiguous unless it would lead to misunderstanding. There is no way to make a simple translation of this phrase that covers both possible meanings, and the Greek ambiguity is reflected in the English "obedience of faith," so we left it like that.

The comments to this entry are closed.



Koinoniablog.net Analytics

  • :